"We are now in the midst of a cyclical bear market smack dab in the middle of a (super-cycle) secular bear market which began in 2000 and will likely entend into the "teens."
Virtually every index has put in new, lifetime highs since 2000. How is that price behavior indicative of a longer term secular bear market? I can see the obvious cyclical bear markets between 2000 and late 2002 and late 2007 to the present. Why would it take 7 years for a bona-fide secular trend change to become apparent? (1 chart)
U.F.O.










